[ASLML] Multiple hits

[Bruce Bakken]

>
>I can understand how a reasonable person could feel this way. - Not you,
>mind you, but a reasonable person. :)
>

:-)

>But the rules also state that whenever you roll a non-OBA IFT attack you 
>may
>activate the enemy sniper. You're making two DRs for "effects" and choosing
>which one to apply to the enemy target. I don't see anything clearly in the
>rules that says the Sniper isn't activated if I don't "choose" that DR.
>

Riddle me this, Sam-man...

I achieve Multiple Hits and roll two times on the IFT.  My first Original DR 
is a "4", which results in a Final 1MC and is the enemy SAN.  My second 
Original DR is a "3", which is a Final 2MC.  In this instance I choose to 
use the Original DR of "3".

According to your argument, the enemy is entitled to a Sniper attack because 
of the "4" DR.

But: "The Sniper attack occurs after resolving all effects of the DR that 
activated it..." (A14.1)

However, I am not resolving the 1MC (the result of the Original DR that also 
equalled the SAN).  I am resolving the 2MC.

My question is this: when does the Sniper attack occur?

Bruce Bakken

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