[ASLML] DC residual

[Bruce Probst]

On Thu, 08 Apr 2004 08:41:36 -0400, "Bruce Bakken" <bebakken at hotmail.com>
wrote:

>Assume that there are no Vulnerable PRC.  Are you claiming that any attack 
>pre-designated versus an AFV may not leave Residual FP?

That would be my understanding of D.8, yes.

>If this is your claim, it is so clearly at odds with A8.2 that you will have 
>to show me something other than D.8 to back it up.

I have already pointed out that it seems to me that A8.2 and D.8 are
contradictory.  I don't have an answer for that.

>The attack versus the AFV is the "original attack" I am talking about!

But how does it leave Residual FP when it is exerting no original IFT FP?
It's a TK DR.  TK DR only have "FP equivalency" for the sake of attacks vs.
Personnel and Collateral Attacks (C8.31).  This isn't an attack vs. Personnel,
and we all seem to be in agreement that Collateral Attacks don't leave
Residual.  So where is the FP that you would base your Residual on?

I have sent a Q to Perry.  I understand your argument, it's just at this point
I don't agree with it (because I don't think D.8 says what you think it says).
I may well be in error, but at this time I don't see what I'm supposedly
missing.

----------------------------------------------------------------
Bruce Probst              bprobst at netspace.net.au
Melbourne, Australia      MSTie #72759
"Of course it's phallic.  Why wouldn't it be?"
ASL FAQ              http://www.users.bigpond.net.au/mantis/ASLFAQ