[ASLML] DC residual

[Bruce Probst]

On Wed, 07 Apr 2004 08:49:06 -0400, "Bruce Bakken" <bebakken at hotmail.com>
wrote:

>The Collateral Attack does not leave Residual FP, but the original attack 
>versus the AFV does.

No, Bruce.  There *is* no "original attack".  There is only the attack
targeting the AFV, which can also make a Specific Collateral Attack.

>When a vehicle is pre-designated as the attack, we know that no other unit 
>is affected by that attack.  Likewise, no other unit than the PRC are 
>affected by a Specific Collateral Attack.
>
>This has no bearing on the Residual FP left by the original pre-designated 
>attack.

Without the attack vs. the AFV, there is *no* "original attack".  There is
*only* the attack vs. the pre-designated target.

>See the D.8 EX on page D2 [2nd Ed] for an example of ordnance TH striking 
>the vehicle, making a TK DR, and leaving (ROF dependent) Residual FP.

I believe that EX is in error.  It doesn't gibe with what D.8 actually says.
(The EX is talking about a MG making a TH/TK attempt, so it uses the "Vehicle
Target Type" line of the Collateral Attack Table, not the "MG" line; that is a
Specific Collateral Attack, which leaves no Residual; the original TH/TK
attack can't leave Residual either, because no IFT FP was being used!)

----------------------------------------------------------------
Bruce Probst              bprobst at netspace.net.au
Melbourne, Australia      MSTie #72759
"Of course it's phallic.  Why wouldn't it be?"
ASL FAQ              http://www.users.bigpond.net.au/mantis/ASLFAQ